The Plan of the Ages

 

 Introduction

 

This article is a transcribed sermon given to a local fellowship group in January 2005.  I have decided to reformat this sermon into booklet form, but it can also be obtained on CD or audio cassette.  To all believers that are interested in the Bible and committed in studying the meanings of the words of God this subject of the "plan of the ages" is a most important study simply because it shows God’s plan of the eventual "restitution of all things" (Acts 3:21).  The doctrine of the "plan of the ages" does not allow that this be the ONLY day of salvation (2Corinthians 6:2 was incorrectly translated); when in fact it is only A day of salvation (Isaiah 49:8).    My point is, God is not calling the vast majority during this age; He is only calling and choosing the "firstfruits" of His creatures (James 1:18).  God’s "plan of the ages" is clearly seen by the meaning of certain words in the original wording of scripture.  If we proclaim as Christians that we love the words of God (as we should); it then behooves us and it becomes our duty to trace the meanings of words that are biblically used to explain what is called the "plan of the ages".  Then as professing Christians we should all believe the meanings of the original inspired words in spite of what we personally happen to believe as doctrine.  But I want to clarify that our salvation is secure even if we do not understand this subject as we should.  We are only saved by the works and faith of Jesus Christ, therefore our salvation does not depend on our own personal works of study; or on any works done on our part, for that matter.  Good works of study and good works of charity come naturally on their own by loving God as the Spirit of God inspires us to grow in the grace and knowledge of Jesus Christ (2 Peter3:18).  We truly should respond in loving God by studying and believing His inspired words of scripture because He first loved us (Romans5:8).  Please read the following transcribed sermon very carefully…….

 

Today will be on my continuing series on the subject of the world.  My previous sermons were mainly on the meaning of the "cosmos" world.   But today will be on the "aion" world.  I’ve entitled this message the "plan of the ages".  What I want to do is go through some of the scriptures (not nearly all) in the New Testament where the Greek word "aion" was used. 

 

Today will be a format of strictly searching the scriptures on what the Greek word aion really means.  This will not be a sermon on Christian living, but I believe as long as the Bible is taught it should be edifying, and I hope you believe the same way.  I might be boring to some of you today, and some of you might not agree with what will be presented.  All I ask is that you bear with me, and I ask for your patience and that you hear me out. 

 

Ephesians3:9-11  KJV  9 And to make all [men] see what [is] the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ: 10 To the intent that now unto the principalities and powers in heavenly [places] might be known by the church the manifold wisdom of God, 11 According to the eternal purpose which he purposed in Christ Jesus our Lord:  

 

Now let’s read these same verses from Young’s Literal Translation:

 

9 and to cause all to see what is the fellowship of the secret that hath been hid from the ages in God, who the all things did create by Jesus Christ, 10 that there might be made known now to the principalities and the authorities in the heavenly places , through the assembly, the manifold wisdom of God, 11 according to a purpose of the ages, which He made in Christ Jesus our Lord, 

 

In the KJV the words "world" and "eternal purpose" both are the Greek word aion; no. 165.  This is how we get the English word age, and Strong’s Con. says it means an age, but it also added the word "eternal".  Young’s translation of Eph. 3 mentions the purpose of the ages, or what I would call the plan of the ages.  In the KJV, aion was translated the vast majority of times (71 times) simply as "ever", and as "world" 38 times; also the words never, evermore, age, and eternal were used.  According to Thayer’s Lexicon, aion can mean forever, an unbroken age, endless duration of time, eternity, the worlds, universe, period of time, or age.  If we use common sense it is obvious that there is something wrong with these definitions.  These words might sound good in English, but they all have various meanings and when combined together they do not explain the one meaning for aion.  If aion means forever or eternity; then how can it also mean an age or a period of time?  It becomes a contradiction by Thayer’s own definition, if you know what I mean.  An unbroken age or an endless duration of time is a contradiction in itself. 

 

An age by definition can only mean a period of time that will eventually end.  It is not the Greek word aion that defines eternity.  The problem is, Strong’s and Thayer’s had to correctly interpret the meaning of aion, but they also added definitions to match the words that we find in our KJ Bibles.  No translation is perfectly true to the original manuscripts.  Thayer’s Lexicon is a very good Bible tool, but it is only a commentary written by a man subject to error.  But I do believe God raised up scholars to give us concordances, lexicons, and Greek and Hebrew word studies; and He wants us to use them. 

 

Eternity was before time and the ages began and also after the ages cease.  But of course the eternity of God, Christ, and the hosts of heaven still exist at the same time as the plan of the ages.  But understand, eternity is NOT the ages or when time is measured.  Eternity and eternal life is outside the realm and dimension of time, space, distance, measurement, physical matter, and yes, outside of the realm of the ages.  I ask you to please keep that fact in mind as we search the scriptures where the Greek word aion is found. 

 

The Bible was written to the generations of Adam (Gen 5:1).  As we know, the Bible says Adam could have lived forever had he taken of the tree of life after he sinned.  But since Adam sinned and all the generations of Adam inherited the penalty of that sin; then all of Adam must physically live and die during the time known as the plan of the ages.  There is no way for the generations of Adam to know what eternity is; which is why Adam kind must go through a plan of the ages in order to be redeemed, and one of these ages is this present evil age. 

 

The way this subject of the ages is generally addressed in the KJV, and also other translations as well, is simply translated into the English word "world" or the phrase "for ever and ever".  To unravel the correct meaning of words we must search the scriptures.  The Bible is very interesting, but only if we take a serious interest in searching the scriptures, and all the scriptures have to fit to explain one meaning.  The Bible explains the history of a family going back 6000 years, and it also explains the destiny of this family of people.  But the Bible is much more than a history book; much more.  It is a book on law, and it explains the unchanging laws that affect our thinking and even our lives, and it explains the penalty of breaking these laws. 

 

It is a book that proves the existence of a Supreme God, that is, if we choose to read and believe the proofs.  The Bible talks about the unseen creation called heaven, and the Bible also talks about heavens plural.  It is a book that explains the unseen creation of the angels that are called principalities, dominions, and powers.  It is a book that explains why evil is in the world, and it explains the remedy for evil.  It is a book that explains government and explains a government that is of God.  The Bible explains the origins of nations and how God sets up the nations, so that they can rule themselves.  It is a book that explains the origins and beginnings of all creation.  It is a book of true science.  It is a book that explains why we are involved with time and the plan of the ages.  It is a book that also goes into before time is measured and before the ages started, which is a dimension outside of our physical understanding. 

 

This is spiritual knowledge that can only be understood on a very limited basis, and only if we have the Spirit of God.  It is a book that if read and believed has the power to renew our minds and will literally change our way of thinking.  It is a book that explains why we live in what is known as this present evil world. 

 

Galatians1:1-5 KJV Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead;) 2 And all the brethren which are with me, unto the churches of Galatia: 3 Grace be to you and peace from God the Father, and from our Lord Jesus Christ, 4 Who gave himself for our sins, that he might deliver us from this present evil world, according to the will of God and our Father: 5 To whom be glory for ever and ever. Amen.  

 

It is this present evil aion, or age no. 165, which God created as we will see.  We all know we experience evil in this age, but the vast majority of people that love this present age do not know the purpose of evil.  Since God is a good, loving, and peaceful God it escapes them to know why they have to experience evil.  Why would a good, loving, peaceful God allow earthquakes such as the recent earthquake that killed many thousands of people?  The understanding and knowledge why we experience evil comes from the Spirit of God if we truly believe the Bible is God’s instruction book and revelation to us.  

 

Isaiah45:6-7 KJV That they may know from the rising of the sun, and from the west, that there is none beside me. I am the LORD, and there is none else. 7 I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things.

 

Can we comprehend a God of mercy, peace, and love that created spiritual darkness and evil?  Brothers and sisters, that is what is stated, so let’s not try to explain the darkness and evil God creates does not really mean evil and darkness.  This type of darkness is not a darkness that happens when the sun goes down.  Darkness come from no. 2821 and means to hide, conceal, to obscure, and to confuse.  Evil is no. 7451 and means anything bad, disagreeable, malignant, unpleasant; anything causing pain, unhappiness, misery, displeasing; anything hurtful, unkind, vicious in disposition; anything wicked caused of persons, of thoughts, deeds, actions; anything causing distress, misery, injury, calamity, adversity, or anything wrong. 

 

Why would God deliberately create conditions for deception and evil?  But God does not, I repeat does not create sin.  Sin means to miss the mark, or make a mistake, either in thoughts or deeds, of not complying with the intent of the laws of God.  That is what God wants us to avoid.  God did not miss the mark or make the mistake of creating evil and spiritual darkness.  The divine balance is that God also forms light and makes peace to those that truly want the light of understanding and true peace. 

 

Lamentations3:38 KJV Out of the mouth of the most High proceedeth not evil and good? 

 

Can we imagine evil coming out of the mouth of a peaceful loving God.  In our own carnal thinking we fail to see the divine balance for God to speak BOTH good and evil.  We fail to see the ultimate purpose in evil and the ultimate purpose for God to conceal, hide, obscure, and confuse.  I want to tell you, there is a glorious purpose in evil and spiritual darkness.  It is for our own good that we have the knowledge of both good and evil.  God did not put one tree of the knowledge of good and then another tree of the knowledge of evil in the Garden of Eden.  It was only one tree, and Adam and Eve had to partake of only one tree to know BOTH good and evil at the same time.  Do not ever think that God did not know what Adam and Eve would do.  Why do you suppose God made the tree pleasant to the eyes for Eve to look upon?  You would think God would have made the tree ugly. 

 

It was like bait for Eve, and a responsible God set up the conditions for deception; so that Adam and Eve would know both good and evil.  Understand that God was responsible for Adam and Eve to know both good and evil; but of course they had to make that choice.  It was not forced on them.  God used the devil to deceive and seduce Eve, but Adam was not deceived (1Tim 2:14); he was compelled to sin because he loved his wife. 

 

God is a responsible God and anything evil, darkness, and deception only happens by the supreme purpose and council of His own will.  God is not limited and He is very able to do what He wants.  We are very limited, and we are completely helpless, and we have no say-so in the matter of what God already decided for us.  God is very able to prevent evil, darkness, and deception if He wants to.  The fact is God did create these conditions in an evil age for a reason.  God is the most responsible being in the universe.  But understand; God himself is not evil and He has no evil intentions.  2Cor. 5:18 says all things [are] of God. 

 

Ephesians1:11 KJV In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will: 

 

Predestinated means "determine before".  God determined before the ages according to His purpose and after the council of His own will that we obtain an inheritance. 

 

Romans11:36 KJV For of him, and through him, and to him, [are] all things: to whom [be] glory for ever. Amen. {whom: Gr. him}

Hebrews2:10 KJV For it became him, for whom [are] all things, and by whom [are] all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the captain of their salvation perfect through sufferings. 

Colossians1:16-17 KJV For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether [they be] thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: 17 And he is before all things, and by him all things consist. 

 

Can we truly comprehend what these scriptures are saying?  Brothers and sisters, God is totally in control.  Everything revolves around God. 

 

Philippians2:12-13 KJV Wherefore, my beloved, as ye have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling. 13 For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of [his] good pleasure.  

 

God is responsible for even working in us to do His will and to do His good pleasure.  And here we thought it was all up to us, but make no mistake; we have to be willing participants in fear and trembling to let God do the work of salvation.  All things are of God according to the council of His own will; not our counsel or our will.  Again I repeat, God is responsible for evil, and it is God that will clean it up in due time, but only after evil and darkness served its purpose.  Yes, God is responsible for this present evil age, and it is totally under His control. 

 

Hebrews1:1-2 KJV God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, 2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;

 

The term "worlds" is aion no. 165.  God created all the ages.  Some translations use universe, but in the original Greek it was ages.  Young’s literal translation says this: in these last days did speak to us in a Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He did make the ages; 

 

Ephesians2:5-7 KJV Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved;) {by...: or, by whose grace} 6 And hath raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus: 7 That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus.

 

God made the ages and has also planned for ages to come in the future.  Here the KJV correctly used ages; it is aion no. 165.  There is this present evil age, and there is the coming age known as the 1000 year rule of Christ, but notice there are ages to come (plural) after this present evil age.  There are at least two future ages after this evil age when God really shows the riches of His grace and kindness toward us. 

 

Matthew12:30-33 30 KJV He that is not with me is against me; and he that gathereth not with me scattereth abroad. 31 Wherefore I say unto you, All manner of sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven unto men: but the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost shall not be forgiven unto men. 32 And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the world to come. 33 Either make the tree good, and his fruit good; or else make the tree corrupt, and his fruit corrupt: for the tree is known by his fruit. 

 

The term, "neither in this world" is no. 165, meaning age.  Any way we choose to interpret what the sin against the Holy Spirit is; it is a sin associated with a tree that is known by its fruit.  That word "corrupt" means worthless or no longer fit for use.  How does a tree become worthless and not fit for God to use?  Trees and branches of a tree are always symbolically used to represent a family tree of nations genetically connected as branches of a real tree. 

 

Now I want to point something out, and this is very important.  Christ explained that this sin has a limited time that it is not forgiven; only during this age and only during the age to come.  So we have to ask, what about the age after that or after the ages to come (plural).  Mark’s gospel about the unpardonable sin is worded different than Matt. 

 

Mark3:22-30 KJV And the scribes which came down from Jerusalem said, He hath Beelzebub, and by the prince of the devils casteth he out devils. 23 And he called them unto him, and said unto them in parables, How can Satan cast out Satan? 24 And if a kingdom be divided against itself, that kingdom cannot stand. 25 And if a house be divided against itself, that house cannot stand. 26 And if Satan rise up against himself, and be divided, he cannot stand, but hath an end. 27 No man can enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he will first bind the strong man; and then he will spoil his house. 28 Verily I say unto you, All sins shall be forgiven unto the sons of men, and blasphemies wherewith soever they shall blaspheme: 29 But he that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost hath never forgiveness, but is in danger of eternal damnation: 30 Because they said, He hath an unclean spirit.

 

Verse 30 is the key that I believe explains what this sin is all about.  The word "never" is connected with the meaning of aion or ages no. 165, and it was translated as "never" eight times.  Any way we interpret "eternal damnation" it is still limited to this age and in the age to come.  This is just one of many examples that the word "eternal" should not have been used.  It should be "age-lasting judgment" by Christ’s own definition. 

 

If this sin never has forgiveness, why is it only in danger of eternal damnation?  If "never" really means never; then this sin will not ever be forgiven; then most certainly it will be damned (or judged).  But Christ said this sin is only in danger of being damned; that is according to the KJ translators.  If this sin is not forgiven during either of two ages; then it is not an option for this sin to be damned (or judged).  Christ did not contradict himself.  The KJ translators did, and many other translations as well.  The words never, danger, world, and eternal should not have been used.  The word "danger" means bound, guilty, or liable, carrying a penalty.  Check it out.  Christ said this sin will not be forgiven for two ages, and those that commit it are bound, liable, and guilty for age-lasting damnation (or judgment).  That is what these verses are saying. 

 

Now why did Christ mention the sin of unforgiveness in the first place?  Notice it was because the Jews accused Christ of using Beelzebub to cast out unclean spirits, which is why they said in verse 30 that Christ had an unclean Spirit, and then Christ responded by mentioning a sin that cannot be forgiven.  I believe if an unclean spirit attempts to join with the Holy Spirit; which is as a house divided against itself and it will not stand; hence it cannot be forgiven.  Unclean spirits want to corrupt the good family tree to be worthless and useless to God, and guess how that is done. 

 

The Concordant Literal New Testament says this about the unpardonable sin: having no pardon for the eion, but is liable to the eionion penalty for the sin.  That is the proper translation, and it means that the sin of unforgiveness carries a judgment for the entire age; either this age or the age to come.  This sin is committed during this age and I believe it will be possible to commit during the age to come, but it will not be possible to commit after these two ages.  That is why this sin can only be judged during these two ages, and after that it will not be judged because it will not be committed. 

 

1Corinthians15:24-28 KJV Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. 25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. 27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. 28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.

 

There is a time after the age to come when Christ will put down all rule, authority, and power, because it will no longer be needed; and then Christ gives the kingdom over to the Father so that all of God can be in all.  This is when there will be no more death, evil, or sin. 

 

Revelation11:15 KJV And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become [the kingdoms] of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever.

 

Does Christ rule for ever and ever?  No, we just read in 1Cor 15:25 that Christ must reign only "till" (or until).  It is not an endless rule that lasts for ever and ever.  The 1912 Weymouth translation says: He will be King until the Ages of the Ages.  This means that Christ rules for at least two ages but only UNTIL, and then gives the kingdom to the Father, as we read in 1 Cor. 15.  These last ages are compared to all past ages; and then comes what is known as  eternity, and what was experienced as time and the ages will be no more. 

 

As I mentioned before, aion was translated the vast majority of times simply as "ever".  As we know, there are many examples of the phrase "for ever and ever" (21 times).  This phrase every time it is found is always translated from aion no. 165.  In the Greek it simply means "ages of the ages".  This may seem frivolous to ask, but have you ever wondered why the word "ever" is repeated as "for ever and ever?"  The translators knew aion was repeated in many single verses.  They knew they had to match the Greek; which is why they also repeated the word "ever".  But you cannot have an eternity followed by another eternity.  This is a contradiction in itself, but it fits beautiful if it is "ages of the ages".  As we know, there are many examples in the KJV where it uses only the one word "ever".  In the Greek sometimes just one age was mentioned; so the translators also had to use just one "ever".  The fact that the Greek sometimes used only one age and other times used two ages proves aion cannot mean forever.  You cannot have eternities of the eternities.  If forever means eternal then it should always be translated as forever without adding another ever.  The translators might have matched where aion appears, but they did not match the meaning.  In only two scriptures the KJ translators used ages to match the Greek word aion, but all the other times they didn’t, and we can only wonder why.  The fact that they were NOT consistent is a red flag right away. 

 

The word "everlasting" is always aionios no. 166, but the meaning of 166 comes from aion 165.  In simple terms, aion just means age, but aionios means age-lasting. Young’s consistently translated aion as age or ages, and aionios as "age-during".  Aionios was translated as "eternal" 42 times in the KJV, and the vast majority of times it referred to eternal life promised to the saints.  What is eternal life?  The Concordant Literal NT says in John 3:16: may be having life eionion.  The Weymouth says: Life of the Ages.  What does that mean?  It means life of the ages.  It is not hard to understand.  Eternal life is not limited to mean just for eternity.  "May be having aionion life" means now.  Eternal life is living the life of Jesus Christ now, and also in future ages.  

 

1 Timothy1:17 KJV Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise God, [be] honour and glory for ever and ever. Amen.

 

Young’s Translation says this: 

 

and to the King of the ages, the incorruptible, invisible, only wise God, is honour and glory--to the ages of the ages! Amen. 

 

"King eternal" means King of the ages.  That is the original Greek, and several other translations say the exact same thing.  God made the ages which is why He is referred to as King of the ages.  What is wrong with saying God’s honor and glory is to the ages of the ages?  Nothing whatsoever.  You certainly would not say God’s honor and glory is to the "eternities of the eternities".  There are only two examples where the word "eternal" does really mean eternal. 

 

Romans 1:20 refers to God’s eternal power and Godhead, and Jude 6 refers to everlasting chains of darkness.  In these two examples it is not aion or aionios.  It is a different word (no. 126), and it truly does mean everlasting.  I encourage you all to check these things out for yourselves, and then you will know what I am trying to explain. 

 

The phrases, "since the world began", or "before the world began" found in Rom 16:25, 2Tim 1:9, and Titus 1:2 were originally in the Greek as; "before times aionion"; which simply means before the times of the ages. 

 

Titus 1:-2 KJV In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began; {In: or, For}

 

"Eternal" and "world" are both aionion no. 166, so to be consistent and accurate, and if eternal really means everlasting, how can you have eternal life promised before eternity began?  Eternity does not have a beginning.  Weymouth has it correct: in hope of the Life of the Ages which God, who is never false to His word, promised before the commencement of the Ages.  Young’s Translation also has it correct: upon hope of life age-during, which God, who doth not lie, did promise before times of ages.  You would not say, "before eternal times", because eternity has nothing to do with times. "Before the beginning of time" is the correct way to say it, and some translations say it exactly that way. 

 

It is repeated many times that God’s glory is for ever and ever no. 165, or "ages of the ages".  Does that mean God’s glory only lasts for the ages of the ages, or that eternal life for the saints is also only age-lasting? Of course not.  Just because the original Greek translated God’s glory as ages of the ages, and eternal life for the saints is age-lasting does not exclude or cancel out eternity.  The point is, we do not know what eternity is.  The Bible only deals with Adam kind where they’re at, and the redemption process is only during the plan of the ages. 

 

It is aionion life no. 166 that is promised to the saints, and if aionion life means life of the ages, then that is what it means.  Saints are promised the life of the ages; but once the ages are finished the saints will still have never ending life.  Ages are included in eternity, but they do NOT mean eternity.  God’s eternity was not only before the ages began but also during the ages and also after the ages.  Every time the phrase "forever and ever" is found it never refers to the saints receiving eternal life.  Does that shock you?  It always refers to God.  I checked it out.  But it does refer once to saints ruling with Christ for ever and ever (Rev22:5).  They rule only for the ages of the ages. 

 

I want to now show the "plan of the ages" comparing the KJV with other translations that use aion (no. 165).  The example showing before the aions:

 

1 Corinthians2:7 KJV: God ordained before the world unto our glory: 

Concordant Literal NT: before the eons.  

1896 Rotherham: before the ages. 

Darby translation: God had predetermined before the ages for our glory: 

 

Here’s the example of God making the aions:

 

Hebrews1:2 KJV: by whom also he made the worlds;

Literal Translation of the Bible: He indeed made the ages;

Messianic Translation: through Whom He also made the ages. 

Young’s: through whom also He did make the ages;

 

Here’s the example of past aions:

 

Colossians1:26 KJV: [Even] the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints:

Concordant Literal NT: hid from eons

1896 Rotherham: hid from the ages

Young’s: the secret that hath been hid from the ages.

English Standard Version: the mystery hidden for ages and generations. 

 

Why does the KJV have "ages" in this scripture and not in other scriptures?  It’s the same word; "aion".  You see, the KJ translators didn’t dare to say the mystery was hid forever, simply because Paul said the mystery is now manifest.  It was not hid forever. 

 

The example of the present aion:

 

Galatians1:4 KJV: deliver us from this present evil world,

Concordant Literal NT: the present wicked eon.

1896 Rotherham: present age an evil one. 

Young’s: that he might deliver us out of the present evil age

Weymouth: the present wicked age

 

Out of 23 translations in my computer software about half have this scripture correct.  The KJV is among those that do not use the correct word.  They use "world". 

 

The example of the end of the present aion:

 

Matthew24:3 KJV: the end of the world

Concordant Literal NT: conclusion of the eon.

1896 Rotherham: conclusion of the age. 

Young’s: the full end of the age.

Darby: completion of the age. 

 

Again, about half of various translations use "age" in this verse, but the rest, including the KJV, use the word "world". 

 

Here’s the example of the next aion: 

 

Luke18:30 KJV the world to come life everlasting.

Concordant Literal NT: in the coming eon; life eionion. 

Rotherham: age that is coming.

Young’s: and in the coming age, life age-during.' 

Weymonth: in the age that is coming the Life of the Ages.

 

Here is the example of the future aions:

 

Ephesians2:7 KJV: That in the ages to come.  

Concordant NT: the oncoming eons.

Rotherham: ages that should come. 

Young’s: in the ages that are coming. 

 

Here again the KJV has it correct, because the translators couldn’t say the "forevers to come" (plural). 

 

Here is the example of comparing the aions:

 

Ephesians3:21 KJV: Unto him [be] glory in the church by Christ Jesus throughout all ages, world without end. Amen. 

Concordant Literal NT: for all the generations of the eon of the eons.  

Rotherham: age of the ages. 

The Literal Translation of the Bible: to all the generations of the age of the ages [fig., forever and ever]! 

 

It is comparing age singular with ages plural.  The phrase, "throughout all ages" in the KJV is not correct; in the Greek it is generations (no. 1074), and the vast majority of all translations include "all generations".  So why didn’t the KJ translators include "all generations" also?  I believe they had to do a "balancing act" by using "all ages" with the phrase "world without end" to mean eternal, and to include all generations with an age would upset the balance.  "World without end" (no. 165) makes no sense because ages do come to an end.  By the very meaning of generations (no. 1074), referring to either race, time, or age it does not fit to have all generations with eternity.  The age of the ages is the final and greatest age in the plan of the ages.  This is when all the generations of this final age will realize the glory of the Church in Christ Jesus (Eph 3:21). 

 

Eternity was before the ages started and will start again where it left off with the plan of the ages in between, but it doesn’t mean eternity did not exist during the plan of the ages.  The Literal Translation of the Bible has a very interesting footnote for Eph 3:21.  If you noticed the footnote says this; "forever and ever" is the figurative meaning for the phrase "age of the ages".  This is very typical of how the KJ translators treated the phrase "age of the ages".  My question is; why did the KJ translators always show only the figurative meaning and never the literal meaning of "for ever and ever"?  It is not hard to understand that eternity cannot be explained as a plurality of eternities.  "For ever and ever" is not one eternity followed by another.  The words, "for ever" without adding the extra "ever" is found about 30 times and it is always aion no. 165 except twice. 

 

Now finally here is the example of ends of the aions:

 

1Corinthians10:11 KJV Now all these things happened unto them for ensamples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come. 

Concordant Literal: consummations of the eons

Rotherham: the ends of the ages. 

 

Notice Paul included those living at that time; "upon whom the ends or the world are come".  The process of ending the plan of the ages started after Christ’s death, but the plan is far from over; it has just begun.  "World" is no. 165 and it makes no sense for world singular to have ends plural; it is "ends of the ages".  Once again, the vast majority of all translations have this scripture correct, except the KJV and just a couple of others. 

 

Now before you start throwing things at me for criticizing the KJV it is still the best translation over all; in spite of the misuse of the Greek words aion and aionios.  We are only to use the KJV; not to trust it as infallible.  There is a difference in trusting and using.  I am not saying to quit using the KJV, but just be aware how some words were translated.  That is all I am saying. 

 

There is no translation that is completely accurate, because when you translate Hebrew and Greek words; the pureness and uniqueness of the meaning automatically gets lost or changed; even if it’s only very slightly.  That is what happens when you translate.  Ironically one meaning of the word "translate" means to change.  God created the uniqueness of the meaning of words in their own language.  God didn’t alter or change the uniqueness of the meaning of certain Greek words just so the translators could use "eternal sounding" English words. 

 

If you believe God inspired the KJV then you must also believe God inspired the translators to be inconsistent, which they most certainly were.  This fact demands that we compare and weigh the evidence of how words were translated.  That is, if we are seeking the truth of God’s word and some of you might not be.  In the last several years when I started preparing sermons I was forced to search the scriptures, and I have learned things, brothers and sisters, that I would not have learned otherwise.  I am only beginning to truly respect and love God’s word as I never have before in my life. 

 

In conclusion I hope this lesson was not too complicated, and I want to exhort you to also love and respect God’s word.  So what is God’s word, and what is preserved for us?  The writings of the prophets and the apostles is what God preserved, and God also preserved Bible tools to help us understand the inspired words, and He expects us to use as many tools, helps, and translations that we can get our hands on.  Confusion of the scriptures is brought on by ourselves simply because we are too lazy, or that we are not humble enough to accept the spirit of truth.  Last Sunday Mark explained that very clearly.  We have to be humble and be willing to change.  We could be wrong on some very basic doctrines; very wrong.  But understand, our salvation does not depend on how we understand doctrine or certain Hebrew or Greek words.  Our salvation depends totally on our trust and our belief on the power of the shed blood of Jesus Christ.  That is what pleases God.  We do not have to understand perfectly.  But it also pleases God if we put forth the effort to better understand His word, which makes it all the more easier for us to grow and the harder it is for us to be deceived.  Isn’t that what we want?


 

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