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The Lord’s Supper and Holy Communion
By Mahlon Wickey, January 2011Every spring during Easter most of our modern churches honor and observe the death of Jesus Christ by what is known as the "Holy Communion" service. Some churches do this ceremony of Holy Communion once a year, and others do it once a month or even every Sunday, and some churches believe Holy Communion should be done as often as feasibly possible. Then there are a few church groups that believe it should be done during of the old covenant "Holy Day" festivals.
The Holy Communion service is generally done by passing around a tiny piece of ordinary bread (or unleavened bread) and a tiny sip of wine (or grape juice) for those in attendance that choose to "partake" of these physical elements. I believe it was unleavened bread and REAL wine (alcoholic beverage) that Jesus Christ passed around to His apostles at the last Passover meal; which is also known as the "Last Supper".
Some churches forbid "non-members" from the Holy Communion service since ONLY "members" of that particular church are allowed to partake of this most HOLY ceremonial ritual. Then there are a few churches that practice what is known as the "washing of feet". Why are most of today’s churches so divided (or confused and deceived) on HOW this most holy ceremony should be conducted, and on how OFTEN it should be observed and partaken of during the year?
But what is very CONSISTENT is that most of today’s churches ALL seem to have a profound NEED to mentally "zero in" on DOING the ceremonial "works" of eating a tiny piece of broken bread and drinking a tiny sip of wine. They assume (yes, ASSUME) that they MUST somehow "copy" what Jesus Christ did with His apostles at that last Passover meal, and all this is supposedly done in remembrance of the death of Jesus Christ.
Most modern churches will insist that yes, without question, Jesus Christ did indeed COMMAND Holy Communion to be observed in remembrance of His death for all believers to observe with brothers and sisters in the faith. The fact is, the early churches when they assembled did indeed partake of a special meal called the "Lord’s Supper", as we shall see.
What is the correct history and theology behind the observance of the Holy Communion service? Was the ritual and ceremony of Holy Communion introduced by Jesus Christ at the "Last Supper" that He intended for His church to observe UNTIL He "comes again"? Or is it nothing more than a Catholic tradition called a "Christian" tradition that came from a "Jewish" tradition practiced long BEFORE the death of Jesus Christ? We shall see.
The purpose of this article is NOT to judge others on their understanding of the Lord’s Supper and the Holy Communion service. For what its worth, this article will be written ONLY to show how I personally have come to understand the scriptures regarding the Lord’s Supper and Holy Communion. Everyone must be fully persuaded in their own mind to be happy with the things that they allow, so as to NOT condemn themselves…. (Romans 14:22) "Happy is he that condemneth not himself in that thing which he alloweth".
If partaking of the bread and wine at Holy Communion makes anyone feel good or happy about themselves then they should by all means partake of it. I have absolutely no problem with anyone partaking of Holy Communion, nor do I have a problem with anyone disagreeing with this article. Some will disagree simply because they happen to understand the scriptures in a different manner than I do. It’s just that I have come to believe that TRUE worship from the heart does NOT require anyone to DO the ceremonial "works" of physical rituals!
There are those that believe that partaking of the bread and wine is a COMMANDED ritual and ceremony, but if anything was commanded by Jesus Christ at the last Passover meal the emphasis would be on "washing feet" (John 13:8). But "strangely" this practice is ignored by the vast majority of today’s churches! These churches seem to be able to easily explain the spiritual application as to why it is NOT necessary to do the physical ritual of "washing feet". But the eating and drinking of the bread and wine is ALSO just a physical ritual, but they seem to be UNABLE to explain the spiritual application as to make this physical ritual ALSO NOT necessary to do. It seems that most of our churches have taken the liberty to pick and choose on their own without ANY biblical authority what part of Holy Communion they want to partake of, and of course it is NO mystery why they choose NOT to "wash feet".
Most of our modern Churches believe that the Holy Communion service is simply showing HOW believers are symbolically "eating and drinking" of Christ’s flesh and blood, as Christ said that believers MUST do in order to have the LIFE of Christ in them. This is explained in John 6:53, as we shall see later.
Our modern Christian faith seems to DEPEND on ceremonial rituals for somehow being "righteous" before God. But most of our churches will say that the "righteousness" of the Holy Communion service is simply a ceremonial ritual and NOTHING more, and therefore they have to CONFESS that the so-called righteous "works" of this most HOLY ceremonial ritual has NO power to CHANGE or "convert" the sinful carnal heart.
It is of course believed that this Christian tradition of the Holy Communion service was started by Jesus Christ at the last Passover meal, and was supported and taught by the apostle Paul to the Corinthian Church. I want to point out that Paul’s epistles are the ONLY scriptures that talk about the "Lord’s Supper", and what we call "Holy Communion". It is indeed true that the Corinthian church was attempting to partake of the "Lord’s Supper" even though Paul said what they were doing was NOT to eat the Lord’s Supper, as we shall see later.
It is very "strange" that in ALL of Paul’s epistles (except to the Corinthians) he NEVER instructed the early churches about Holy Communion! If there would be any true VALID instructions for this most Holy Communion service it would be Paul’s epistles to Timothy and Titus. Paul gave his complete recommended instructions to Timothy and Titus on how the early churches were to function and conduct themselves, but NOT ONE statement did Paul write to Timothy and Titus on HOW this most Holy Communion service should be conducted! If Paul’s faith in Holy Communion would have been as profound as IT IS with most of today’s Churches, then one would have to think by all means Paul certainly would have mentioned it to Titus and Timothy. But WHY did Paul give instructions in HOW to HONOR the "Lord’s Supper" ONLY to the Corinthian Church?
From these biblical facts I get the impression that IF the Corinthian Church would NOT have abused and corrupted the Lord’s Supper (as we shall see), then Paul would NEVER have mentioned the subject of communion and the Lord’s Supper in ANY of his epistles! This is something to think about!
The statement, "this do in remembrance of me" is found ONLY in the gospel of Luke, and it ONLY was applied to the broken bread, but "strangely" NOT to the cup of wine (Luke 22:19). The other gospels say NOTHING about the physical elements being done in remembrance of Christ. Yet Paul QUOTED Christ’s own words that BOTH the bread and wine were to be done in remembrance of Christ’s death (1Cor 11:24-25). Why are these very important words NOT found in three of the Gospels? Why this supposed "mystery"? The apostle John wrote several whole chapters of the words of Jesus Christ at the last Passover meal, but John NEVER mentioned anything of the broken bread and the cup of wine, and John was the ONLY apostle to mention the "washing of feet". Again, why this supposed "mystery"?
ALL the apostles (except Judas and Paul) were present at the last Passover meal and heard the words of Jesus Christ, but Paul did indeed QUOTE the words of Jesus Christ, but these profound words seem to have been "forgotten" by the other apostles. If (yes, IF) this very important event was to be "remembered" by ALL believers AFTER the death of Christ, then WHY were these very important words of Jesus Christ somehow "lost" in the gospels? Are all these "unusual" biblical facts just a coincidence, or does it show a certain divine pattern of INSPIRED scripture that sincere believers should be aware of?
I want to now go "deep" into the HISTORY of this subject as it is biblically explained. Let our minds go back in history of this event known as the "Last Supper", and let us try to mentally put ourselves in the "apostle’s shoes" as Jesus Christ explained to them of a certain "change" with the physical elements He gave to the apostles. The major point I want to make is that Christ spoke ONLY from the viewpoint of WHAT the apostles understood when He gave these physical elements for them to eat and drink. So, from their viewpoint when they heard the words of Christ; WHAT did they understand the bread and wine represented at that time? That TIME in biblical history is very important for sincere "truth-seekers" to understand!
As we all know, the Passover meal was always done "in remembrance" of a lamb without spot or blemish that was slain many centuries BEFORE Jesus Christ’s death to spare the firstborn Israelites from being killed by the "death angel".
A source of "Jewish" tradition explains that after the Passover meal the "Master of the house" would pronounce a blessing, and then take a cup of wine and then he broke the hidden cake (unleavened bread), and distributed these elements to all sitting at the table. This was WHAT every Israelite family did after the Passover meal during the time of Christ, and this is WHAT the apostles were very familiar with. The Passover meal always included bread and wine; symbolizing the flesh and blood of that lamb that Israel had "remembered" for fifteen hundred years!
Because of God’s laws given to Moses the Israelites were very familiar with physical symbols and types, and again, "Jewish" tradition explains that they literally "memorialized" the flesh and blood of that lamb with the symbols of bread and wine. Jesus Christ after He ate that last Passover meal with His apostles ALSO used these SAME symbols of bread and wine used for many centuries to symbolically "remember" that slain lamb that was without spot or blemish. At that last Passover meal Jesus Christ did not (I repeat, DID NOT) institute anything NEW to His apostles, but our modern "spiritually enlightened" churches believe and teach that HE DID! Jesus Christ as "Master of the house" was only doing what all the families of Israel were doing in the privacy of their homes for fifteen hundred years!
Jesus Christ WAS the Lamb of God (John 1:29) that was to take away the "sin of the world" (sin is singular, and should read "offence of the world"). The bread and wine were NO LONGER to be taken in "remembrance" of that lamb sacrificed ONLY for the sins of Israel many centuries before, but now the REAL LAMB without spot or blemish was to be sacrificed for the sins of the WHOLE WORLD (1John 2:2). What the Israelite families were ceremonially doing after the Passover meal for many hundreds of years was looking FORWARD to the event of Jesus Christ’s death. They were UNKNOWINGLY "showing" Christ’s death UNTIL He came to die as the Lamb of God two thousand years ago. Notice Paul’s statements on this important fact….
1Corinthians 11:23-26 (KJV) (23) For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, That the Lord Jesus the same night in which he was betrayed took bread: (24) And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me. (25) After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me. (26) For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.
As I mentioned before, this very important statement; "this do in remembrance of me" is NOT found in three of the gospels, but Luke mentioned it but ONLY for the broken bread, but NOT for the wine. Yet Paul was quoting Christ as having said these words that included the wine! Paul wrote, "For I have received of the Lord" (verse 23), and yes, the resurrected Jesus Christ gave visions and revelations to Paul (1Cor 12:1, 7). I believe Paul received special revelations NOT stated in the gospels on HOW Christ’s words were to be understood AFTER Christ’s death. The complete statement of verse 26 were Paul’s words (NOT Christ’s words), and there must be a reason WHY Paul mentioned this statement AFTER he quoted Christ’s words spoken to His apostles. Christ told His apostles to "remember" Him by the elements of broken bread and wine that represented His body and the New Testament (covenant) in His blood (verse 25). But did Christ command His apostles to continue doing what the Israelite families were doing for many hundreds of years in "showing" Christ’s death "TILL HE COME"?
A burdened and very heavy-hearted Jesus Christ wanted this to be a very special event shared intimately ONLY with His apostles in HOW Christ wanted His death to be "remembered" before he died. He used the SAME symbols that the Israelite families used for many centuries; only this time His apostles were to show and "remember" CHRIST’S death (NOT the death of that lamb)! Please understand this very important premise!
Jesus Christ of course knew that the apostles would continue observing the Passover meal along with the Jewish tradition of partaking of the bread and wine. Christ said; "as OFT as ye drink it" (verse 25); implying that EVERY time they drank of that Passover wine they were "remembering" Christ’s death. But Paul knew that the observance of Passover had SERVED its purpose, and he knew that the families of Israel for many centuries were UNKNOWINGLY "showing" Christ’s DEATH; but ONLY "till he come"! So what did Paul mean; "till he come"?
As strange as this may sound, maybe Paul did NOT INTEND for the Corinthians to symbolically "show" Christ’s death! Was Paul cautioning the Corinthians to NOT DO what the families of Israel were doing for hundreds of years in "showing" Christ’s death BEFORE He died, and therefore BEFORE they had a savior? I believe Paul added the words, "till he come" from the premise of that TIME in history BEFORE Christ’s death.
This word "come" (G2064) is found over six hundred times in the New Testament, and has NO spiritual application, and is only used in the present and imperfect tenses. It is a complete different word than the word "coming" (G3952), which always has a spiritual application of a "coming of Christ" AFTER Christ’s death and resurrection. This word (G2064) certainly does NOT mean in the FUTURE sense of the so-called "second coming of Jesus Christ". To believe the TRUE meaning of INSPIRED words determines our spiritual GROWTH of understanding!
I believe the premise, "till he come" is BEFORE Christ’s death. Jesus Christ did indeed COME TO DIE; which means that AFTER Christ’s death the physical elements of bread and wine would LOSE the power of what they were supposed to represent (NOT the lamb’s death, but the death of Jesus Christ), and therefore these physical elements could no longer legally "show" Christ’s death. I believe that was the very important LESSON that Paul was explaining to the Corinthian Church!
I believe Paul cautioned the Corinthian church that as OFTEN (every time) they used these symbols of bread and wine they were doing what Israelite families were also doing BEFORE Christ’s death. Most of our modern churches are truly determined or inspired to "show" Christ’s death in ceremonial fashion as OFTEN as feasibly possible; NOT realizing that just maybe Paul cautioned AGAINST doing that!
Most of today’s churches are correct in believing that by partaking of these elements of bread and wine DOES indeed "show" the death of Christ, but they just might be very wrong in teaching "till He come" means the FUTURE so-called second coming of Jesus Christ! But Paul spoke (as the resurrected Jesus Christ revealed to him) from the viewpoint of what the Israelite families were UNKNOWINGLY doing for many hundreds of years; which was "showing" Christ’s death "till he come". I want to repeat, Jesus Christ did indeed COME as a humble "lamb" two thousand years ago to GIVE His body and shed blood as the ultimate sacrifice NOT only for the sins of Israel, but ALSO for the sins of the WHOLE WORLD (1John 2:2).
If (yes, IF) we have the SPIRIT of the LIVING resurrected Jesus Christ in our hearts then WHY is it so necessary to symbolically "show" His death? Are we serving a "dead" Jesus Christ until He "comes again"? Why not symbolically "show" a LIVING resurrected Jesus Christ? Israelite families for many hundreds of years were ceremonially "showing" the death of Jesus Christ BEFORE His actual death. That is a biblical fact!
Jesus Christ’s "COMING" to die was a PAST event and a fulfilled reality. In the context of Paul’s statement, "Ye do shew the Lord’s death, till he come" he was explaining a PAST event since He was quoting Christ’s statements from the perspective of a Jewish tradition that did indeed look FORWARD to the death of Jesus Christ (the TRUE Lamb of God). I realize that some might NOT agree with what I tried to explain, but all I’m asking is that you think this through from the viewpoint of WHAT the Israelite families were unknowingly doing for many hundreds of years BEFORE the death of Jesus Christ.
The ONLY time Paul wrote about the "Lord’s Supper" is in 1Corinthians 11:20. The Corinthian church was corrupting the Lord’s Supper, and Paul pointed out all the wrong things that they were doing when "supposedly" eating the Lord’s Supper. I believe the Lord’s Supper was to be celebrated with love, joy, and fellowship at "feasts of charity" (Jude 1:12); which were done in the Spirit of the LIVING (NOT dead) Jesus Christ!
Certain Bible scholars call these feasts simply as "love feasts", and Paul had to chastise the Corinthians sharply for corrupting the Lord’s Supper at these love feasts. The Lord’s Supper was NOT AT ALL observed in the manner as the Holy Communion service is observed today by most modern churches. The early churches would NOT even recognize the modern day "version" of the Lord’s Supper as it is observed today! These love feasts were very special times when the saints assembled in "breaking bread", in fellowship, and in prayers (Acts 2:42). It could be said that these feasts of love and charity were "showing" the LIVING Jesus Christ (NOT His death)!
These love feasts were to "show" the LIVING resurrected Jesus Christ living HIS life in HIS church that He was building! This was why Paul was very ANGRY when he saw the corruption of the Lord’s Supper within the Corinthian church. This anger is expressed very well in 1Cor 11:20-30. They were NOT to eat the Lord’s Supper in that manner, and they were even getting DRUNK with the wine meant for the Lord’s Supper. They were NOT discerning (G1252) the Lord’s body by eating and drinking unworthily of the Lord’s Supper. G1252 means to "separate", which means they did NOT "separate" this unworthy behavior FROM the Lord’s body, and for this CAUSE many were weak and sickly, and many DIED prematurely (1Cor 11:29-30). Please understand; the "Lord’s body" was THEM!
This "unholy" eating and drinking was corrupting the spiritual "health" of the Lord’s body, which then corrupted the physical health of certain members of the Lord’s body! The complete person (spirit, soul, and body) was to be FED at these love feasts with BOTH spiritual and physical food, but some were UNWORTHY of this spiritual food, and their bodies were then physically affected by this spiritual "mal-nourishment"! Jesus Christ WANTS believers to be in good health and to live a FULL life and NOT die a premature death! But today in a much DIVIDED church world believers are NOT exempt from disease and sickness, and there are many untimely deaths. But even in a divided church world there is still the TRUE Lord’s Supper for believers to seek and partake of, as we shall see.
Partaking of the Lord’s Supper obviously had to do with the "cup of blessing" and "breaking bread" that Paul mentioned....
1Corinthians 10:14-17 (KJV) (14) Wherefore, my dearly beloved, flee from idolatry. (15) I speak as to wise men; judge ye what I say. (16) The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ? (17) For we being many are one bread, and one body: for we are all partakers of that one bread.
Was Paul talking about what happens at a Holy Communion service as it is practiced today in our modern Churches, or was he talking about what spiritually happens during the Lord’s Supper at a love feast? That is the question.
It appears that the early churches were actively involved in "blessing a cup" and "breaking bread". As we all know, there are several examples of saints "breaking bread", which I believe was simply eating a meal, and a joyous time of love and fellowship. The subject Paul was discussing in the proper context was to "flee from Idolatry" (verse 14). Paul then asked them to judge what he was about to explain, and what he explained was the COMMUNION of the blood and body of Jesus Christ. The sin of idolatry was compared to them blessing the "cup of blessing" and compared to them "breaking bread".
The word "communion" (G2842) is the same Greek word used for fellowship, and it means partnership and participation. But was it fellowship, partnership, and participation with the ACTUAL wine in the cup that they drank, and with the ACTUAL broken bread that they ate? Paul explained that THEY were the "one bread" and the "one body", and THEY all were partakers of that one bread; which was THEM! It was NOT a tiny piece of bread or a tiny sip of wine as most churches practice today!
The REAL COMMUNION was the fellowship, partnership, and participation with the blood and body of Christ; which actively bonded them together as ONE bread and ONE body! To flee idolatry caused them to bless a certain "cup" and to "break bread". The word, "blessing" (G2129) simply means to speak well of, and to praise. When they assembled at these love feasts they blessed (spoke well of and praised) what the wine in the "cup of blessing" represented; which was the blood of Christ, and the "broken bread" represented the body of Christ that they were in COMMUNION with; which was THEM! Obviously the "cup of blessing" is directly linked to the cup of wine that Jesus Christ used at the Last Supper, and I do believe REAL WINE was in that cup for their enjoyment, and they were actively in communion with THEMSELVES in truly enjoying these love feasts. There is NOTHING wrong with enjoying REAL wine as long as it is NOT taken in excess (Eph 5:18).
Ps 104:15, Zech 10:7, and Eccl 10:19 are examples of REAL wine making the heart glad, making the heart rejoice, and making the heart merry. Drinking REAL wine and "breaking bread" done in the SPIRIT of the LIVING Jesus Christ at a love feast was an excellent "recipe" to cause the glad, joyful, and merry hearts to "show" the LIVING resurrected Jesus Christ!
I believe Paul was explaining that the WAY saints were to "flee idolatry" was that they NEEDED to simply assemble themselves at a Lord’s Supper to enjoy a love feast. Their REAL protection from idols and the cup and table of devils (1Cor 10:21) was their COMMUNION (partnership and participation) with the blood and body of Jesus Christ at a love feast during a Lord’s Supper. It was called the Lord’s Supper because the same physical elements of broken bread and the cup of wine were used by Jesus Christ at the Last Supper; hence the term, the "Lord’s Supper". They were in REAL communion and partaking of the REAL THING; which was the SPIRIT of Jesus Christ living in them and INSPIRING that ONE bread; which was THEM!
The REALITY of communion was NOT with the wine that they enjoyed at these love feasts, and the REALITY of communion was NOT with that broken bread that they ate as a MEAL with joy, love, and fellowship. The REAL communion has NOTHING to do with a tiny piece of bread or a tiny sip of wine that we see practiced in most modern churches! But it has EVERYTHING to do with being in fellowship, in partnership, and participating with that ONE bread; the body of Jesus Christ made up of many members. These love feasts were a time of fellowship, love, joy, and peace, which represented the REALITY of the LIVING Christ (NOT a dead Christ) that was in fellowship, partnership, and participation within the many members of His body; the church. Here is another example of "breaking bread"….
Acts 20:6-7 (KJV) (6) And we sailed away from Philippi after the days of unleavened bread, and came unto them to Troas in five days; where we abode seven days. (7) And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and continued his speech until midnight.
They came together to break bread on the first day of the week (Sunday). I’m sorry to say this to all you Saturday Sabbath keepers, but they did indeed come together on a Sunday! Over the years I heard ALL the spinning and twisting of scripture "proving" that this meeting was actually on a Saturday and continued to midnight. It is true that Saturday at midnight would be called the "first day of the week" since the days started at sunset at that time. But Paul specifically stated that WHEN they came together was UPON the first day of the week!
Another theory is that this particular first day of the week was the FIRST of seven Sabbaths that are counted from the FIRST day of unleavened bread to Pentecost (the first day of course being the FIRST of seven Sabbaths). But the problem with that theory is that this particular "first day of the week" happened to come AFTER the days of unleavened bread (verse 6), therefore I do believe Sunday was indeed the day that the Lord’s Supper and these love feasts of charity, joy, and peace took place.
As we all know, Jesus Christ was resurrected early on the first day of the week (Sunday), and His disciples assembled on that resurrection day, and again a week later (John 20:19, 26). Could it be that this is how these love feasts got started on a Sunday? They simply wanted to celebrate a LIVING Jesus Christ on the day of His resurrection. The SPIRIT of the LIVING Jesus Christ was IN their hearts inspiring them at these love feasts, and that was HOW the love, joy, and peace was ACTIVE in "showing" the LIVING resurrected Jesus Christ that was spiritually in their hearts. It was NOT "showing" Christ’s death!
We all are familiar with John 6:51-63 when Christ talked of "eating and drinking" of His flesh and blood. I will not display all these scriptures, but I want to show the three scriptures where Christ explained the symbolic spiritual application of "eating and drinking" of His flesh and blood....
John 6:62-64 (KJV) (62) What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before? (63) It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life. (64) But there are some of you that believe not. For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray him.
As we all know, Jesus Christ spoke in parables and "hard sayings" to people that would NOT believe Him ANYHOW; as in the case of literally "eating and drinking" his physical flesh and blood. Christ knew from the beginning those that would NOT believe the TRUE meaning of eating and drinking of Christ’s body, which is why he said this hard saying to them (verse 64). He seemed to mock them; as if to say; "What IF you see me ascend UP to where I was before (disappear), then how could you eat and drink of my invisible flesh and blood"?
Christ then explained it is our spirit that quickens (makes alive); it is NOT our flesh eating and drinking that makes us ALIVE ("the flesh profiteth nothing"). Our spirit is quickened when INSPIRED by the words of Christ, which are SPIRIT and they are LIFE (verse 63). We must FEED on Jesus Christ’s words (and all inspired scripture) by BELIEVING on them in faith. That is how we spiritually "eat and drink" of Jesus Christ, and then our spirit quickens us to make us alive with HIS LIFE. Yes, we physically and spiritually ARE what we eat and drink.
Jesus Christ is very much alive and has passed into the spiritual invisible realm of "heaven", and that is WHERE we are to have COMMUNION and fellowship with Him. But Jesus Christ was ALSO "in heaven" while in the flesh two thousand years ago….
John 3:13 (KJV) And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, [even] the Son of man which is in heaven.
Notice that Christ was IN HEAVEN while on the earth speaking these words, and if (yes, IF) we have Christ IN US we are ALSO "in heaven" while in these flesh bodies, and we can have COMMUNION with him spiritually "in heaven". When millions of believers partake of "Holy Communion" in their churches they are NOT partaking of Holy Communion "in heaven" where Christ is NOW! They are NOT AWARE that what they are doing is WHAT all the Israelite families were doing for many centuries BEFORE Christ; which was simply an old covenant ritual and a "Jewish" tradition that DOES NOT give us the LIFE of Christ!
In conclusion, this article has presented a theological viewpoint about Holy Communion that millions of believers have NEVER heard of, and I realize this article will NOT change the hearts of those that are inspired to partake of Holy Communion. But maybe some will "rethink" this subject and begin to think about the REAL COMMUNION "in heaven" where Jesus Christ will "SUP" with us and we with Him, but we must open the DOOR of our hearts to let Him in (Rev 3:20). Oh yes, the LIVING Jesus Christ wants to have SUPPER with us, and wants to be in fellowship, in partnership, and in participation with us!
By Mahlon Wickey January 2011
Questions or comments?... Email: mrwickey7@gmail.com