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Who or what is "Satan the devil"?
By Mahlon Wickey June, 2011As we all know, most modern churches believe and teach in a PERSONAL wicked angel known as "Satan the devil". It is believed that this so-called "Satan the devil" is a spiritual enemy to ALL mankind, and has "magical" powers to easily deceive mankind to worship false gods. Most pastors are inspired to WARN their congregations that Satan is especially "active" by influencing christians NOT to serve Jesus Christ and the TRUE God. Christians are made to believe that the christian faith is the only faith (yes, the ONLY faith) that can fight and defeat this very "dangerous" personal spiritual enemy! Millions of christians are also made to believe that there is a "struggle" or a "spiritual war" between an all-powerful God and Satan for the souls of mankind. These millions of christians of course are then compelled to believe the INSANE "christian" theory that Satan seems to be WINNING this "spiritual war" against an ALL-POWERFUL God in claiming the vast majority of souls!
Obviously there is a "Satan" because most Bibles repeatedly use the term "Satan", and I believe this "mysterious" Satan was created by God for a divine purpose, and is only doing WHAT he (or "it") was created to do! This article will NOT disprove the existence of Satan (who or whatever this "Satan" is), but this article will disagree with our modern "spiritually enlightened" churches in HOW they explain "Satan the devil".
Before I begin this article I want to "pave the way" so to speak by pointing out some interesting biblical FACTS. First of all, the exact phrase, "Satan the devil" is NOT found in the Bible! That exact phrase was invented by carnal men that were inspired by their "christian" faith. But the phrase, "the Devil and Satan" is found in Rev. 12:9 and 20:2, in which the "great dragon" and "that old serpent" are identified as the Devil AND Satan. The word "and" is used; which means that these are TWO Greek meanings used as two INSPIRED "names", and these are the ONLY KJ scriptures that "Devil" is with a capital "D". But the KJ Bible has "Satan" ALWAYS with a capital "S", and "serpent" is NEVER with a capital "S"! The KJ translators obviously believed in "Satan" as ONE personal wicked angel, and I believe this was WHY "Satan" is ALWAYS with a capital "S". But why (yes, WHY) did they NOT capitalize the terms "serpent" and "devil" IF these two terms ALSO identify this ONE personal wicked angel?
Again, ONLY in Rev 12:9 and 20:2 was the "Devil" INCLUDED with "Satan", which in a sense forced the KJ translators to capitalize "Devil". The irony and dilemma for the KJ translators is that the "great dragon" and "that old serpent" are called the "Devil" and "Satan"; which (it is believed) is instead "mysteriously" only ONE personal wicked being! The term "old" obviously means that when the "serpent" deceived Eve was when the deception process STARTED at the "old" (ancient) history of sinful mankind. So the question is; do these three terms, "serpent", "devil", and "Satan" refer to ONE wicked spirit BEING, or refer to three SPIRITS that are divinely designed with three different functions that INSPIRE the heart of man?
The term "Satan" in Greek (G4567) is of Chaldee origin; which is the same Hebrew "Satan" (H7854) that means "opponent", and was translated as "adversary(s)" in several KJ Old Testament scriptures that applied to MEN. I find it interesting that the term "Satan" is NOT found in Young’s Literal Translation, and neither is the term "devils" (plural). I want to point out that Young’s Literal translation is fairly accurate in matching the meanings of the original INSPIRED words found in the original Hebrew and Greek manuscripts.
The term "devil" (singular) is a Greek word (G1228) that means "traducer", and Webster’s Dictionary says that "traducer" is based on willful slander to misrepresent someone, and "devil" was translated as "false accusers" and "slanderers" that applied to men and women in Christ’s Church! Now think about this!
But "traducer" comes from G1223; which denotes a channel of an act. Our thoughts go through A CHANNEL of our minds that can cause EVIL intent. Please understand, there is a SPIRIT known as a "devil" in all (yes, ALL) of us that "channels" our thoughts that can INSPIRE us to ACT OUT evil intent, and INSPIRE us to speak LIES to slander and falsely accuse others.
Another biblical FACT is that the term "devil" (singular) is NOT found in the KJ Old Testament! But the term "devils" (plural) is found in ONLY four KJ Old Testament scriptures, and it is interesting that one meaning for "devils" (H8163) means "he goat", and was translated as "kid(s)" or "goat(s)" forty two times. This means that when Israel sacrificed goats they were sacrificing "devils", so therefore it does NOT necessarily mean that "devils" were simply false gods during the old covenant.
The other Hebrew meaning for "devils" (H7700) means "malignant" (malicious, hurtful, cruel, etc), and was translated as "devils" only TWO times that referred to Israel sacrificing to false gods. This inspired biblical TRUTH and FACT means that the VAST majority of times that the term "devils" was used in the KJ Old Testament DOES NOT mean "false gods"!
In the New Testament the Greek term "devils" (G1140) was used sixty times, and the Greeks originally explained this term as "a deity" (a false god). G1140 was taken from G1142 which can be explained as to "distribute" a SPIRIT of a bad nature. The major point is that this would mean a bad or "evil spirit" (NOT spirit "being") that is easily "distributed" to carnal sinful hearts. G1140 (devils) is how we get the term "demon(s)".
The Hebrew "serpent" (H5175) comes from H5172 that means to "hiss" (the "voice") of a snake (serpent) that "whispers" a magic spell, and was translated as "enchantment(s)" (the "magic" of influence) six times in the KJ Old Testament. The Greek "serpent" (G3789) means "sharpness of vision" or "sly cunning" as an artful malicious (hurtful and cruel) person. The symbolic "serpent" is very "artful" (crafty and clever) with "magical influence" specially designed to be very effective and done in a very convincing way to deceive mankind about the TRUE God.
But with all these special "talents" the symbolic "serpent" only does what an artful malicious PERSON would do. I believe this is WHY the inspired term "serpent" is a SPIRIT (NOT a spirit "being") that INSPIRES a PERSON to be crafty and clever (artful), and to be malicious (with cruel intent) to have a "sharpness of vision" in deceiving others about the TRUE God!
Certain people today believe that the "serpent" in the Garden of Eden that deceived Eve was "Satan" that appeared to Eve as a physical MAN, and this deception involved seducing Eve to have sexual intercourse that produced Cain. Then it is believed that the "seed of the serpent" (Gen 3:15) was simply a RACE of evil people that descended from Cain through physical conception. But Gen 4:1 MUST be explained, which plainly says that Adam "knew" his wife Eve and she CONCEIVED and bare Cain. This is obviously talking about a PHYSICAL conception making Adam the biological father of Cain. Yes, there are "theories" that "explain" HOW Adam "knew" his wife Eve because the belief in Satan being the biological father of Cain had to be UPHELD!
I will not go in detail with the "seed of the serpent", but instead I would like to direct the readers of this article to carefully read Ted Weiland’s book entitled, "Eve: did she or didn't she"? In my opinion this book is very well written that explains in detail just how the "seed of the serpent" can be biblically explained. Just do an internet Google search on the words, "Eve: did she or didn't she", and you can read Ted Weiland’s book online, and it can also be purchased from the same web page.
As we all know, the Bible was written with many symbols, parables, proverbs, and figurative "picture-language" was also used, and without sincere study with prayer WHOLE sections and "hard" sayings of the Bible CANNOT be understood. This is WHY our modern churches interpret the Bible differently, and this is WHY they are all divided with EACH church "strangely" claiming they are "right". Our modern churches seem to never consider that the terms, "serpent", "Satan", and "devil" could mean something very different and far more important than to mean just ONE personal wicked angelic being! We should carefully consider WHY the Bible writers were INSPIRED to use the terms, "serpent", "Satan", and "devil". The major point is; we should NOT believe the so-called "christian" viewpoint on WHAT these terms mean, and WHY they were biblically used.
It is generally believed that a perfect angel in the far distance past called "Lucifer" rebelled against the government of God, and therefore became a "fallen" angel known today as "Satan the Devil". But it is never explained WHY this ONE angel after his rebellion was biblically called by THREE different "names". Or could these "names" simply be three inspired MEANINGS that describe the REAL enemy to ALL mankind? We shall see.
Our modern churches seem to ignore, or they simply misunderstand what Jeremiah 17:9 is TRULY saying….
KJV The heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately wicked: who can know it?
The word "wicked" should NOT have been used! It is the word (H605) which means frail and feeble, and was translated as "incurable" five times, and also translated as "sick". The frail and feeble human heart is spiritually and desperately SICK, and has an "incurable" sickness that ONLY God can cure and heal!
Why is the human heart so very deceitful ABOVE all things that caused Jeremiah to ask; "who can know it"? Yes, who can know WHY the human heart is so easily deceived, and so very deceitful? Where do deceptions about the TRUE God come from? Jeremiah might as well have said that deceptions COME from the frail, feeble, and desperately SICK deceived human heart! But the deceived human heart will TEACH other human hearts to also be deceived, and that is HOW deceptions about the TRUE God are spread to ALL cultures and ALL religions.
Man by himself with his OWN so-called "free will" is UNABLE to cure and heal his "incurable" sick heart, which is why it takes God (NOT man) to CURE and HEAL the desperately SICK (NOT necessarily "wicked") deceived human heart!
There obviously is a divine purpose WHY sinful man was born to have an "incurable" sick heart that is very deceptive and so easily deceived. Just maybe an all-powerful sovereign God created a spiritual "opponent" (Satan) when He created Adam so that Adam would be INSPIRED to naturally, carnally, and sinfully OPPOSE God for a divine purpose! This spiritual opponent (Satan) spiritually "infected" Adam with an incurable SICK heart, and when Adam sinned this spiritual sickness spread to the hearts and minds of all mankind "in Adam".
How can the "intelligent" thinking of mankind be so easily deceived about the TRUE God? I believe there is a created spiritual adversary and an opponent (Satan) that is divinely designed to be a "stumbling-block" to the "intelligent" thinking of all mankind. There is indeed "something" that is blocking the "intelligent" thoughts of man so that he "stumbles" at the very logical and common sense spiritual truths about the TRUE God! These spiritual truths are turned into believable LIES, and this is the divine cause as to WHY we live in an evil deceived world! I believe one of these believable LIES is the "christian" belief in a PERSONAL Satan, and the believable LIE that these deceptions are CAUSED by this personal Satan.
No, I believe our REAL enemy is our OWN frail, feeble, and desperately SICK deceived heart! It is called our natural, carnal, and sinful human nature. We have all heard this saying; "WE are our own worse enemy". We do not realize just how true and accurate that saying is! I truly believe our own worse enemy is biblically and symbolically called a "serpent", a "Satan", and a "devil".
But is (yes, IS) this spiritual enemy to all mankind (with three INSPIRED "names") only ONE personal angelic being that rebelled against God in the far distance past, and then became known as a "fallen angel", which is known today as "Satan the Devil"? That is the question that this article will address.
By reading certain statements in our beloved KJ Bible it is obvious WHY christians ASSUME that this "Satan the Devil" is a personal "fallen" angel with a personal agenda to deceive man about the TRUE God. But is this assumption simply DUE to "christian" traditions and doctrines that cause most christians to be mentally conditioned and "programmed" to believe in ONE personal wicked angel known as "Satan the Devil"?
Of course, the Bible not only talks about a serpent, a Satan, and a devil, but it ALSO talks about unclean spirits, devils, and demon possession. During the time of Jesus Christ many people were inflicted with "devils" and "unclean spirits", and the apostles were inspired by God to write about the times that Jesus Christ "cast out" these devils and unclean spirits. There is "nothing new under the sun" (Eccl 1:9), and many people today are also inflicted and possessed by these SAME "devils" and "unclean spirits". Yes, this is WHY in today’s evil deceived world we have many mental institutions and insane asylums.
The term, "unclean spirits" (G169) means "impure" SPIRITS that INSPIRE "impure" thoughts that can LEAD to insanity. The Pharisees believed that mental inflictions and sicknesses were CAUSED by REAL personal "devils" and "unclean spirits", which could simply be called "demon possession". They believed that "devils" and "unclean spirits" were personal spirit BEINGS that "mysteriously" were ABLE to INSPIRE the thoughts of people to be mentally troubled, and sometimes with INSANITY.
Our modern Churches NEVER give it a thought that just maybe Jesus Christ wanted the Pharisees to REMAIN in their ignorance and unbelief. Yes, it seems very "unusual" that our beloved KJ Bible does NOT say that Jesus Christ ever disputed or corrected the Pharisees on their belief in "demon possession". This is WHY I believe Jesus Christ "cast out" these so-called "devils" and "unclean spirits" to deliberately keep the Pharisees in their ignorance and UNBELIEF, simply because they would NOT have believed Jesus Christ’s words ANYHOW! It simply was NOT their time for Jesus Christ to HEAL their deceived hearts on "demon possession", and to convert them. Carefully read, study, and believe Matthew 13:10-15.
Jesus Christ in his kindness and mercy used the power of the kingdom of God to HEAL (cast out) the mental and physical inflictions of many hundreds of sick and tormented people of His day. But from reading these accounts of Christ "casting out" devils and unclean spirits it would appear that these were REAL personal spirit BEINGS since they were able to SPEAK with Christ, and they had to OBEY Christ. But just WHO was it that spoke to Christ? Most of today’s christians would say, well of course it was these REAL personal spirit beings that spoke THROUGH the mouths of inflicted and tormented people. Could it be that the spoken words from these inflicted and tormented people were INSPIRED by God for the VERY purpose to UPHOLD the Pharisees belief in "demon possession"? I’m only asking.
What is never explained by christians that happen to believe in "demon possession" is that just maybe all these mental issues and insanity were simply interpreted by the Pharisees as REAL personal devils and unclean spirits, and just maybe these devils and unclean spirits were simply imagined in their deceived hearts! Keep in mind that Jesus Christ deliberately "hid" the TRUTH by speaking in parables, and this is why it makes spiritual common sense that Christ would "illustrate" mental healings in parable fashion to deliberately UPHOLD the "demon possession" belief. There is something very wrong with the "Christian" belief in REAL personal devils and unclean spirits that had the ability and POWER to possess and "take over" the thoughts of people to CAUSE mental issues and insanity.
Insane people DO NOT have the ability to control their emotions, words, and ACTIONS, but they are still controlled by unclean (impure) SPIRITS! But HOW are these harmful spirits controlled? God is the FATHER (a parent in control) of SPIRITS (Heb 12:9), so therefore these harmful SPIRITS would HAVE to be controlled by God the FATHER during a temporary evil deceived world/age. Insanity is caused by the desperately SICK human heart that is NOT ABLE to mentally "adjust" to an evil deceived world that at times is very LOVELESS, heartless, and cruel. Some people are BORN with mental issues caused by the desperately SICK heart that they genetically inherited.
The obvious truth is that all mankind is controlled by SPIRITS ALREADY in their desperately SICK hearts, and NOT by some OTHER source that enters in from the OUTSIDE. Yes, God the FATHER is the ONLY source that determines the TYPE of SPIRITS that will CONTROL the desperately SICK heart! But please understand; ONLY in this world/AGE of evil and deception are evil and unclean spirits necessary, but they still HAVE be under the control of God the Father!
Three gospels describe the event of the "devils" entering into the swine, but there are some apparent contradictions. Matthew 8:28 says that there were TWO men possessed with devils (plural), but Mark says that there was only ONE man possessed with ONE unclean spirit (Mark 5:2-9). Then this one spirit told Christ his name was "Legion" (whole army), and then Christ gave permission for this "whole army" of devils and to enter into the swine. Luke also explains that there was only one man that had devils (plural) for a long time (Luke 8:27-30), but Christ had cast out (past tense) only ONE unclean spirit. Again, this one unclean spirit somehow "mysteriously" turned into a Legion (whole army) of many devils (verse 30).
What is the divine PURPOSE for these OBVIOUS contradictions, and are we to assume that Christ did NOT know about this "whole army" (Legion) of devils? Just maybe all these contradictions were divinely designed to cause doubts about this event that might simply have been a VISIBLE parable instead of just a spoken parable. Are we also to assume that water entered into the lungs of these REAL personal devils and they drowned with the swine? No, these many devils were FREE to possess other people, so why didn’t Christ command all these devils to NOT possess other afflicted people? Keep in mind that the divine PURPOSE of parables was to "hide" the TRUTH from the Pharisees since it was NOT their time to be healed and converted (Matthew 13:10-15).
I believe this was WHY Christ wanted to physically illustrate in parable fashion how the worse kind of tormenting sickness was "absorbed" into two thousand vile, filthy UNCLEAN pigs. Christ used a whole army of vile, filthy UNCLEAN spirits and devils to physically illustrate (as a parable) just HOW tormented the man truly was. Christ destroyed the livelihood of some Gadarenes farmers to get His point across, but He was NOT welcome for doing that and was asked to leave their coasts (Matthew 8:34).
Matthew spoke of a certain CLUE just what "demon possession" truly was. Carefully read, study, and believe these scriptures….
Matthew 8:16-17 KJV (16) When the even was come, they brought unto him many that were possessed with devils: and he cast out the spirits with [his] word, and healed all that were sick: (17) That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, Himself took our infirmities, and bare [our] sicknesses.
Matthew stated that Isaiah’s prophecy (Isaiah 53) was being fulfilled by Jesus Christ "casting out" the SPIRITS and healing all that were sick. Matthew referred to these spirits as Isaiah’s infirmities and sicknesses (NOT spirit "beings") that Jesus Christ took and bare onto himself. Matthew called these infirmities "possessed with devils" (demon possession), but it would be ridiculous to believe that Christ took and bare onto Himself REAL personal "devils"! But Christ was indeed able to bare unto himself the SPIRITS known as "devils", which were INSTEAD the infirmities and sicknesses described by Isaiah!
Of course, these infirmities and sicknesses were all "absorbed" into Christ himself (INTO His PURE mind and PURE thoughts), and therefore these unclean (IMPURE) SPIRITS of "devils" were rendered USELESS! Matthew said that the words of Isaiah and his own words (Matthew’s) were describing the SAME event, but Isaiah said NOTHING about "devils"! According to Matthew "demon possession" was the SAME as Isaiah’s infirmities and sicknesses, and "casting out the spirits" was the SAME as Jesus Christ healing these infirmities and sicknesses.
I believe Matthew was inspired to write about "devils" and "unclean spirits" because of the deceived culture at that time as a record of HISTORY, and NOT as a record of TRUTH! But the "christian" faith teaches that this most certainly is a record of the TRUTH about these personal "devils" and "unclean spirits"!
Notice these statements about "Satan" in Mat 16:21-23....
KJV (21) From that time forth began Jesus to shew unto his disciples, how that he must go unto Jerusalem, and suffer many things of the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and be raised again the third day. (22) Then Peter took him, and began to rebuke him, saying, Be it far from thee, Lord: this shall not be unto thee. (23) But he turned, and said unto Peter, Get thee behind me, Satan: thou art an offence unto me: for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but those that be of men.
Of course, Peter would rebuke Jesus Christ simply because he did NOT want Jesus Christ killed! It was at that moment that Peter became an "adversary" (or became a "Satan") to Christ, and it was Peter HIMSELF that was an offence to Christ, and it was Peter HIMSELF that did not "savourest" (or did NOT regard) the things of God. Yes, Peter HIMSELF had become an "adversary" to Christ; it was NOT a personal "fallen" wicked angel called "Satan"! Most christians would say; of course Satan had "entered" into the heart of Peter that caused Peter to act and speak in that manner. But it is very strange that this "Satan" in Peter did NOT WANT Christ killed! But the Jews WANTED Christ killed, and as we know, they attempted to kill Him several times! Are we to assume that the Jews with their evil intent were NOT an adversary (or a "Satan") to Christ?
But it is biblically stated that "Satan" did indeed enter into Judas (Luke 22:3 and John 13:27). But what TRULY entered into Judas at the last supper that caused him to ACT OUT his evil intent of being an "adversary" (Satan) to Christ by betraying Him? James explains that when we are TEMPTED we are drawn away by our OWN lusts (James 1:14). Judas was drawn away by his OWN lust for money already in his heart! The major point is; that lust for money did NOT enter into Judas from the OUTSIDE by a "fallen" wicked angel called Satan at exactly the time of the Lord’s Supper! But a "satanic" SPIRIT did enter into Judas! Judas was also called "A" devil….
John 6:70-71 KJV (70) Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil? (71) He spake of Judas Iscariot the son of Simon: for he it was that should betray him, being one of the twelve.
Of course, Judas had BOTH the SPIRIT of a "devil/traducer" (G1228), and ALSO the SPIRIT of "Satan" (adversary) just like Peter. Judas had not only become a "Satan" (adversary) to Christ, but his thoughts were "channeled" (G1223) to ALSO be a "devil/traducer" (G1228) that INSPIRED Judas to falsely accuse and slander Jesus Christ by betraying Him. Please understand; BOTH the terms, "Satan" and "devil" were applied to Judas, and NOT applied to a personal "fallen" wicked angel! Therefore it makes perfect sense that these two terms divinely identify TWO types of SPIRITS that inspired Judas.
James 2:19 speaks of the "devils" that believed in one God, but they "trembled" (shuttered in fear)….
KJV Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble.
But just WHO was it that believed in only ONE God, but in their frail, feeble, and deceptive hearts had a tendency to worship other gods? Sacrificing to devils was simply sacrificing to other gods (Deut 32:17). James of course knew about these "devils" in the Old Testament, and he was only warning of the worship of other gods (devils) that no doubt some believers of his day had the SPIRIT of these "devils" in their fearful trembling hearts. James did indeed say that the "devils" trembled, but are we to assume that the deceived hearts of believers did NOT tremble in fear of the ONE God? There cannot be BOTH the "devils" trembling and ALSO the deceived hearts trembling that believed in ONE God, but were deceived by other gods (devils).
Now we come to the event known as the "temptation of Jesus Christ". Jesus Christ was born as a man, and was tempted in ALL POINTS as we are, yet without sin (Hebrews 4:15). Jesus Christ was without sin because He RESISTED all "points" that would LEAD to sin. But as a man with human nature He HAD to be tested and proven; which is exactly what is implied in Matt 4:1 which states, "TO BE tempted of the devil". "To be" means that this temptation (testing) was REQUIRED. After Jesus Christ received the Holy Spirit FULLY he knew he had the power of God to do ANYTHING. But having the Holy Spirit and power of God He also KNEW he had to RESIST his own human nature.
Since Jesus Christ was "God in the flesh" it was NOT possible for Him to sin, yet He HAD to be TEMPTED (tested) to sin! We can only imagine the spiritual struggle and dilemma that Christ was in! Obviously something "spoke" to Christ and "told" him to GIVE IN to these temptations. But what TRULY tempted Christ and "spoke" to Him? That is the question. The "hidden" message of Matthew shows a major clue and a "red flag" that causes us to question just WHO this "devil" truly was!
Matthew "seems" to say that the glory of ALL the kingdoms of the world BELONGED to the devil. No, that was a LIE! Four times in the book of Daniel it says that God sets up and gives the kingdom of men to whomsoever HE (God) chooses. The kingdoms of men were NOT in the possession of this symbolic "devil" to give to Jesus Christ! Sure, evil men (inspired by the SPIRIT known as the "devil") govern the kingdoms of this world but they still BELONG to God. Jesus Christ knew He HAD to RESIST this so-called "devil" because He knew His time was NOT YET to take over and rule the kingdoms of this world.
The mental "voice" of our own sinful human nature "speaks" to us and "tells" us at times to give in to temptations that we know in our hearts is wrong. Keep in mind, Jesus Christ was WITHOUT sin, but I believe the "voice" of His own human nature tempted (tested) him and mentally "told" Him to give in to temptations that He knew He had to RESIST! I believe this event was in "picture-language" showing the REQUIRED mental "struggle" that Christ HAD to endure in resisting this so-called "devil" that was divinely USED to test and prove Jesus Christ.
If you check, BOTH the "devil" and "Satan" spoke to Christ. So why use TWO names to describe WHO spoke to Christ? Or was it describing TWO evil meanings given for human nature? It is very interesting that only the apostles (NOT the prophets) were inspired to write about the "devil" (singular). Of course, the spirit of slander (devil) was active during the Old Testament, but why was the INSPIRED use of "devil" NOT needed at that time? I want to point out that the very first NEEDED inspired use of "devil" was when Christ was tempted of the "devil" (Matt 4:1).
I’m only asking this; but could it be that Jesus Christ as a man with human nature that included the SPIRIT of slander (devil) HAD to be tempted (tested) by this so-called "devil" to PURGE Jesus Christ of any SLANDER against God and man for His ministry and atonement to be TRULY valid and effective?
Since the apostle Peter was aware of Proverbs 19:12, 28:15, and Ezekiel 22:25 he obviously implied that the "devil" was as the wrath of kings, wicked rulers, and false prophets that were as a "roaring lion" (1Peter 5:8). Apparently Peter called wicked men in authority as being the SAME as the "devil" that could "devour" believers. Peter implied that wicked MEN were the "devil"! It was NOT a personal "fallen" wicked angel!
But surely, doesn’t the book of Job prove that Satan is a REAL personal angelic being? It is possible that the "story" of Job was simply written as a "parable", and as we know, parables are "fictitious narratives" (G3850), but they point to REAL truths! Let us suppose the "narrative" of this personal "Satan" was just "fiction" in the "story" of Job, but it STILL pointed to the TRUTH of a symbolic "Satan" that was with the sons of God when they "presented themselves before the Lord" (Job 1:6). These were appointed times in the Old Testament that God would also "present" himself to speak to certain men and instruct them. But men could ONLY do this through an established priesthood, and this priesthood was ONLY for the sinfulness of MAN, and had NOTHING to do with angels such as a personal "fallen" wicked angel known as "Satan".
As we all know, Job honored and used a sacrificial system which had an established priesthood that the "sons of God" (priests) came to present themselves before the Lord. But there was this so-called "Satan" (maybe just another priest) that also "presented himself", and also wanted the use of this priesthood to get an answer from God. I believe this adversary (Satan) was very envious of Job’s blessings, and was simply an enemy and HUMAN "adversary" to Job that God knew about, and then God used this "adversary" for HIS (God’s) purpose.
Satan told God that Job would "curse thee to thy face" if God would touch (strike) all that Job had (Job 1:11). Most translations use the word "curse", but the word "curse" (H1288) means to kneel or to bless. This "adversary" (Satan) knew that if God would strike Job’s possessions he would STILL bless (NOT curse) God "to His face". The word "face" (H6440) means that Job would bless (praise) God "BEFORE or in the presence of God", and that is exactly what Job did!
Job suffered severally, but in WHOSE hands and WHO was truly responsible for Job’s sufferings? Job himself said in 1:21, "the Lord giveth and Lord taketh away", and Job also says in 2:10 that he received evil at the hand of God (NOT Satan), and this evil caused Job to repent (Job 42:6). At the end of Job’s severe trial it plainly says that the Lord (NOT Satan) brought all the evil that Job suffered (Job 42:11). But if (yes, IF) this "Satan" was just a mortal man he could NOT have caused the very painful boils on Job, and all this suffering on Job.
But a mortal man could indeed be inspired by a "satanic" SPIRIT as an "adversary" to Job! God was simply honoring the request of this "satanic" adversary to HARM Job, and then God gave PERMISSION for the "satanic" SPIRIT in this mortal man to severally harm Job. It is the same principle as God using a "lying spirit" against Ahab (2Chron 18:19-22). I believe God used the EVIL SPIRIT of this "satanic" adversary to severally chastise Job to change his heart. Sure, Job was "righteous" but his works were based on his OWN human efforts, and his heart was not yet TESTED to "see" God (Job 42:5); which is to "see" the TRUE righteousness and the TRUE nature of God.
There were other times that God used "adversaries". Num 22:21-22 explains that the angel of the Lord became an "adversary" against Balaam. In 2Samuel 19:22 David spoke of the sons of Zeruiah as being his "adversaries". In 1Kings 11:14 God "stirred up" Hadad the Edomite to be an "adversary" against Solomon. In 1Kings 11:23-25 God "stirred up" another "adversary" Rezon the son of Eliadah to be an "adversary" all the days of Solomon’s life. All these "adversaries" is the word (H7854) given for Satan. Yes, it was God that "stirred up" this so-called "Satan", and yes, the angel of the Lord became "Satan", and human adversaries were also a "Satan"!
The word "Lucifer" is NOT a Hebrew word, but it can be linked to the word (H3213) which means "to howl". Adam Clark says this about "Lucifer"…. I doubt much whether our translation be correct "heilel", which we translate Lucifer, comes from "yalal", yell, howl, or shriek, and should be translated, "Howl, son of the morning;"
This was a "proverb" (KJ footnote says taunting speech) spoken against the evil king of Babylon (Isaiah 14:4-12). He exalted himself to a "lofty" position in his "heaven" (H8064 means to be "lofty"), and he was simply told to "howl" (in a taunting manner) when he "fell" from his lofty mind-set. "Lucifer" WAS NOT a pre-historic perfect angel that rebelled against God!
Some also believe that Satan was the "anointed cherub" spoken of in Ezekiel 28:12, 14. But again, this was a lamentation spoken on the evil king of Tyrus (Not Satan). This "cherub" is addressed by the brief article on this web link…. http://bibletruths.mysite.com/Cherub.htm
In Luke 13:11-16 is an example of a crippled woman that had the spirit of "infirmity" that Christ said was BOUND by "Satan". This crippled woman was born (as we all are) subject to disease and the SPIRIT of infirmities which are a "Satan" (adversary) to our health. The point is, this spirit of infirmity is called "Satan" (adversary) that is in our physical makeup (NOT necessarily in our thoughts) that BINDS us to experience physical infirmities.
In Luke 10:18 Christ said he beheld Satan fall from heaven when the seventy returned with JOY from "casting out" devils. Christ was only responding to the JOY and what they SAID. It was THEN that Christ beheld (perceived) that the "adversary" to human WELLNESS "fell" as lightning falling from heaven. Yes, this symbolic "Satan" exalts himself to the "elevation" (G3772) of "heaven" in the same manner that the SINFUL city of Capernaum also exalted itself to "heaven" (Luke 10:15).
I believe the serpent, Satan, and the devil were created from the beginning as enemies to mankind for a divine PURPOSE! Without these three evil meanings created to be a part of our THINKING process, and without the knowledge of good and evil we would NOT KNOW WHAT to resist and overcome, and therefore we would NOT BE ABLE to build Godly character. Now think about this!
I believe the terms serpent, Satan, and devil are simply symbolic terms that were inspired by God to represent our very REAL enemy. The GREATEST threat to the peace, stability, and security of ANY society or nation is the carnal, self-serving, deceitful, and lustful heart of man! This threat and enemy is NOT a personal wicked "fallen" angel! Our deceptions are all caused by our frail, feeble, incurable, and desperately SICK deceptive hearts. They are NOT caused by a personal wicked angel called "Satan the devil" that is ABLE to "mysteriously" influence and deceive our hearts and minds!
In conclusion; the truth of the Holy Scriptures will make us FREE (John 8:32) from the false ways of an evil world/age, and FREE from the religious "snares" and deceptions of our modern churches. This type of TRUE freedom MUST be earned by the careful study of the TRUTH of the Holy Scriptures that will FREE our hearts from this imaginary personal "Satan the Devil"!
By Mahlon Wickey June, 2011
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